John 1:1

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος

Logos has already been existing besides the commencement and Logos has already been being by the side of Theos and Logos was continuously and unendingly a God
An example of ongoing refining magnified translation of the Greek New Testament (Stephanus Textus Receptus 1550) is that of John 1:1.

Introduction to the biblical Greek letters

The 27 Greek letters were adaptation of the 22 Phoenician letters with into 24 letters with addition of 3 more letters to form the 27 letters.  Technically the Phoenician letters are all consonants, so are those of the biblical Hebrew which currently being debated as older than the Phoenician letters and therefore the Phoenician letters were adapted from the Hebrew letters.  However, technically the Greek letters include both 20 consonants and 7 vowels. With three Phoenician letters dropped off before 403 BC, there are 24 letters in the biblical Greek alphabet.  They are 17 consonants and 7 vowels.  "The use of both vowels and consonants makes Greek the first alphabet in the narrow sense, as distinguished from the abjads used in Semitic languages, which have letters only for consonants.  .... 

When the Greeks adapted the Phoenician alphabet, they took over not only the letter shapes and sound values, but also the names by which the sequence of the alphabet could be recited and memorized. In Phoenician, each letter name was a word that began with the sound represented by that letter; thus ʾaleph, the word for "ox", was used as the name for the glottal stop /ʔ/, bet, or "house", for the /b/ sound, and so on. When the letters were adopted by the Greeks, most of the Phoenician names were maintained or modified slightly to fit Greek phonology; thus, ʾaleph, bet, gimel became alpha, beta, gamma.

Greek was originally written predominantly from right to left, just like Phoenician, but scribes could freely alternate between directions. For a time, a writing style with alternating right-to-left and left-to-right lines (called boustrophedon, literally "ox-turning", after the manner of an ox ploughing a field) was common, until in the classical period the left-to-right writing direction became the norm. Individual letter shapes were mirrored depending on the writing direction of the current line."

Because the similarity of the alphabets of the biblical Hebrew and the biblical Greek, I can see the fingerprint of God the Father and God the Son and God the Holy Spirit in the development and choices of these two biblical languages.

Aided eye observations:

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος

1.  There are three verbs to be "ἦν".  That means that there are possibly three sentences in this verse.
2.  There are three subjects "ὁ λόγος" of the three verbs to be "ἦν".  That means there are indeed three sentences in this verse.
3.  There are two conjunctions "καὶ".  They are connecting the three sentences.
4.  There are two prepositional predicates "Ἐν ἀρχῇ" and "ρὸς τὸν θεόν".
5.  There are two nouns that mean God in this verse.  The first one is in accusative case with a definite article.  The second one is in nominative case without an article. 

Questions emerged due to these observations and the corresponding answers:

1.  Because the three verbs to be are copulative words that express states, what are the states?

Answer:  The states are "Ἐν ἀρχῇ", "πρὸς τὸν θεόν", and "θεὸς".

2.  Because the three subjects of the same three copulative words are the same three nominative singular nouns, what or who is the subject refer to?

Answer:  The subject refers to "ὁ λόγος".

3.  Because the three sentences are connected with two same conjunctions -- kai ... kai ... -- which is a syntactical device to indicate that these three different sentences work in unity, what is the purpose of this unity?

Answer:  The purpose of this unity is to help the reader to identify the subject.

4.  Because there are nouns in this verse, are they common nouns or proper nouns or a mix of common nouns and proper nouns?

Answer:  Since it is the first verse of the book and it is to help the reader to identify the subject,  it is more likely that the two nouns, "ὁ λόγος" and "τὸν θεόν" with the definite articles are proper nouns, and the two nouns without the definite articles, "ἀρχῇ" and  "θεὸς", are common nouns.

5.  A noun without an definite article means that it is an answer to the question "what is it or he or she" or means that it is a member of a category of reality or virtual reality.  Which of these two meanings is that of "ἀρχῇ"?  Which of these two meanings is that of "θεὸς"?

Answer:   "ἀρχῇ" is an answer to the question "what is it or he or her" because it is an adjectival noun.  "θεὸς" is a member of a category of reality or virtual reality because it is referred to a god or a God of the category of intelligent living beings.

/Translation notes:

1.  Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος

The subject of this first sentence of the Gospel of John is "ὁ λόγος" is a proper noun.  To be clear, in my preference, I choose to translate it with transliteration "Logos" and the article was implied by the choice of treating the related noun as a proper noun.  The tense of the indicative verb "ἦν" is imperfect to emphasize unending continuous action in the past time. So it means "has already been existing".  By the context, I choose "has been existed" instead of "was".  The prepositional phrase "Ἐν ἀρχῇ" was adjectival.  The preposition of relation can mean "besides".  The noun "ἀρχῇ" can means "first".  By the context of verse 3 about creation and alluding to Genesis 1:1 about the first ever action of creating, the commencement of the Creation Week.  So the translation is "Logos has already been existing besides the commencement".

2.  ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν 

The subject of this sentence again is "ὁ λόγος".  To be consistent, it is translated as "Logos".  The imperfect indicative verb again was "ἦν" and in this context it means "has already been being".  The objectival phrase was a prepositional phrase "πρὸς τὸν θεόν".  The preposition "πρὸς" in the classification of position can mean "besides" or "by the side of".  About the accusative noun with definite article "τὸν θεόν", to distinguish it from the following similar word without the article, I choose to translate the noun "τὸν θεόν" as a proper noun "Theos" and also fits the context, instead of a common noun.  So the translation is "Logos has already been being by the side of Theos".

3.  θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος

The subject of this sentence again is "ὁ λόγος", even though "θεὸς" is also a normative noun.  However because grammatically among the two normative nouns the one that has the definite article is the subject of the sentence.  "θεὸς" is less likely to refer to Theos because it lacks a corresponding definite article.  Since it is not a proper noun, it is a common noun without a definite article.  It could mean "a god or a God" or "divine".  "a god" means any object of worship.  "a God" means "an ever-existing intelligent being".  I choose "a God" because it best fits the context.  Since Theos is a God and to be with Theos at the time that the first ever act of Creation carried out, Logos had to be not created but ever-existing like Theos.  The imperfect indicative verb again was "ἦν" and in this context it means "was continuously and unendingly ". So the translation is "Logos was continuously and unendingly a God".          

5th Revision 09/25/2017